The right of an exclusivity agent who is not causal

Is there validity to an agreement between a client and an agent that states that the agent will be entitled to receive brokerage fees even if he was not the compelling factor in closing the transaction?
Or is the law stating that an agent is entitled to brokerage fees as long as it was the influential factor is a mandatory law, a law independent of the consent of the parties that cannot be conditioned on?

In this matter, it is possible that precisely this section is dysplasia and not necessarily mandatory.
It can be argued that Section 14(3) of the Realtors Law is a clause that can be granted under an exclusivity agreement.

In my opinion, in principle, there is validity to such a conscious agreement reached between two parties freely and with eyes open and validate the clause in which the brokerage agreement stipulates that the claimant will be entitled to a brokerage fee if the property is sold during the period of exclusivity to any purchasers even if the agent is not the effective party.

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